I'm confused, what are you trying to say here? That drift is not due to the magnus effect and due to the seam presentation effecting the laminar flow over the ball?
edit: then why do those toy balls for babies that do not have seams, drift and not swing. I have bowled with a light soft ball filled with spongy foam as well those light plastic balls that are in those pools of balls for kids and they drift. They only do drift as it the ball begins to fall I've noticed.
edit2: I've just thought of this, wouldn't bowling the ball perfectly square seam cancel the effect of the swing in the ball, and somehow allow for the drift to happen more readilly.
I've always struggled with why with an outswinger for a right handed batsmen swings out and bowling an overspun leg break which has the seam presented in the same direction doesn't behave the same way. The only difference is they spin in the opposite direction, swing bowler has back spin on it.
I can kind of see that generally for and outswingeer that because of the off spin component of the ball, the magnus effect would not hinder the swing because it should "curve" in the same direction.
So do we generally accept that there are two competing forces with an overspun leg break, one from the laminar flow over the seam of the ball becoming turbulent as it hits the seam creating a wake, and the other the magnus effect caused by the overspun rotation of the ball and therefore why we do no see it happen so often with a cricket ball.
Is the effect of the swing created by seams on a ball stronger than the effect of the spin (magnus effect) on a ball?
edit: then why do those toy balls for babies that do not have seams, drift and not swing. I have bowled with a light soft ball filled with spongy foam as well those light plastic balls that are in those pools of balls for kids and they drift. They only do drift as it the ball begins to fall I've noticed.
edit2: I've just thought of this, wouldn't bowling the ball perfectly square seam cancel the effect of the swing in the ball, and somehow allow for the drift to happen more readilly.
I've always struggled with why with an outswinger for a right handed batsmen swings out and bowling an overspun leg break which has the seam presented in the same direction doesn't behave the same way. The only difference is they spin in the opposite direction, swing bowler has back spin on it.
I can kind of see that generally for and outswingeer that because of the off spin component of the ball, the magnus effect would not hinder the swing because it should "curve" in the same direction.
So do we generally accept that there are two competing forces with an overspun leg break, one from the laminar flow over the seam of the ball becoming turbulent as it hits the seam creating a wake, and the other the magnus effect caused by the overspun rotation of the ball and therefore why we do no see it happen so often with a cricket ball.
Is the effect of the swing created by seams on a ball stronger than the effect of the spin (magnus effect) on a ball?